Welcome To nhuda's World

CCNA Part 1

1.) Referencing the following router output below; what is the
administrative distance for the route statement destined to the
150.1.4.0/24 network?

Router#show ip route
Codes: C - connected, S - static, R - RIP, M - mobile, B - BGP
D - EIGRP, EX - EIGRP external, O - OSPF, IA - OSPF inter area
N1 - OSPF NSSA external type 1, N2 - OSPF NSSA external type 2
E1 - OSPF external type 1, E2 - OSPF external type 2
o - ODR, P - periodic downloaded static route

Gateway of last resort is 155.1.0.1 to network 0.0.0.0

155.1.0.0/24 is subnetted, 4 subnets
C 155.1.0.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
C 155.1.5.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
C 155.1.58.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
C 155.1.45.0 is directly connected, Serial0/1
150.1.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets
C 150.1.5.0 is directly connected, Loopback0
R 150.1.4.0 [120/6] via 155.1.45.4
R* 0.0.0.0/0 [150/4] via 155.1.0.1
Router#

* A. - 177.14.4.0
* B. - 120
* C. - 6
* D. - 177.14.43.2

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The administrative distance of a route in the routing table
is defined as the first value in the brackets of a route statement. The
metric is the second value in the brackets. In this question, The
administrative distance is 120 and that network is 6 hops away as RIP
uses a"hop count" as the metric.

2.) What command can you execute from user mode to display the current
IOS version and feature set running on a router that your consoled into?

* A. - dir flash:
* B. - show environment
* C. - show configuration
* D. - show version

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: When in user mode you can view what IOS version, feature
set and image name/location by using the show version command.

3.) Which of the following set OSI model statements are correct

* A. - Layer 1's PDU is bits, Layer 2's PDU is bytes, Layer 3's PDU
is packets, Layer 4's PDU is Frames
* B. - Layer 1's PDU is bits, Layer 2's PDU is frames, Layer 3's
PDU is packets, Layer 4's PDU is segments
* C. - Layer 1's PDU is bits, Layer 2's PDU is bytes, Layer 3's PDU
is frames, Layer 4's PDU is packets
* D. - Layer 1's PDU is bits, Layer 2's PDU is frames, Layer 3's
PDU is bytes, Layer 4's PDU is segments

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B". Looking at how traffic traverses
the network. From he upper layers of the OSI Model it works its way down
to Layer 4 which adds protocol header such as tcp/udp then hands the
traffic down to Layer 3 which adds the logical addressing header such as
the source and destination IP addresses. Afterwards; layer 2 adds the
physical addressing (Source & Destination MAC Addresses) to the traffic
and converts it to a frame then layer 1 converts it to bits (1's and
0's) and sends it out on the wire.

4.) What is the default administrative distance of the OSPF (Open
Shortest Path First) routing protocol?

* A. - 110
* B. - 200
* C. - 90
* D. - 120

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The default administrative distance for OSPF is 110.

200 is the default administrative distance for iBGP, 90 is the default
administrative distance of EIGRP and 120 is the default administrative
distance of RIP

5.) What is the second host IP address in the 150.17.45.60/30 subnet?

* A. - 150.17.45.63
* B. - 150.17.45.62
* C. - 150.17.45.61
* D. - 150.17.45.60

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The 150.17.45.60/30 subnet has two host assignable IP
addresses. Which are 150.17.45.61 and 150.17.45.62. The first IP address
of the given allocation is reserved for the subnet id and the last IP
address is reserved for the broadcast IP.

6.) In what location does a Cisco Router and/or Switch store its
startup-configuration?

* A. - NVRAM:
* B. - Flash:
* C. - Disk0:
* D. - Memory:

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: When you execute the copy run start command you're copying
the running configuration from memory to non-volatile ram. The correct
answer for this question is A.

7.) You are a Network Engineer at a local managed IT services firm. When
working with a client you've obtained the information that the ISP has
provided them the 61.80.44.0/25 address space for internet connectivity.
The company is requesting that you subnet this allocation into 2 subnets
which can be used for a DMZ and NAT for internal host. What subnet do
you use?

* A. - 255.255.255.0
* B. - 255.255.255.128
* C. - 255.255.255.192
* D. - 255.255.255.224

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: If the ISP has allocated a /25 for a company and they
request that you subnet that network into two new subnets then you'll
subnet it to a /26 which will subnet the /25 into 2 /26 subnets giving
you 62 host addresses per subnet. /26 is CIDR notation for
255.255.255.192. The correct answer is C.

8.) You're the network engineer assigned to a hub and spoke frame-relay
project. You have 2 branch offices in Miami, FL and Austin, TX with your
main office in New York City. You are running EIGRP over the frame relay
links and you notice that Routes from Miami are not getting propagated
to Austin However routes from each branch are being advertised to the
main office. What should you check first?

* A. - IP Addressing
* B. - DLCI Information
* C. - IP Split Horizon
* D. - Frame Relay LMI Type

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The question specifically states that the branch offices
can advertise routes with the main office however the branch offices are
not seeing routes to the other branch office. This would be caused by IP
Split Horizon being enabled on the main office interface. IP Split
Horizon prevents routes being learned on an interface to be advertised
back out the same interface.

9.) Which routing protocol provided in the list below is a pure distance
vector based dynamic routing protocol?

* A. - OSPF
* B. - RIP
* C. - EIGRP
* D. - STATIC

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: RIP is considered a pure distance vector protocol using
"Hop Counts" as a metric. EIGRP on the other hand has features found in
both Distance Vector and Link-Style routing protocols therefore the most
accurate answer to this question is C.

10.) Which of the following switching modes examines the first 14 bytes
of frame and determines which port to switch it out of based on the
switches MAC address table?

* A. - Store and Forward
* B. - Frame Switching
* C. - Fragment Free
* D. - Cut Through

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The corect answer is D as Cut-Through examines the first 14
bytes of a frame (the SrcMAC, DstMAC, and EtherType) to determine where
to "switch" the frame to.

11.) Which of the following statements are true regarding the Cisco
Discovery Protocol (CDP)

* A. - CDP is enabled by default on frame relay interfaces
* B. - CDP is enabled by default on Ethernet interfaces.
* C. - CDP requires an IP address to be assigned to an interface to
operate.
* D. - CDP uses TCP port 520 to communicate with neighbors.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a layer 2 based protocol
and does not require an IP address to function so therefore no TCP port
is required as well. CDP is enabled by default on Ethernet interfaces
however disabled by default on frame-relay interfaces. The correct
answer for this question is B.

12.) What is the maximum hop count in RIP?

* A. - 15
* B. - 16
* C. - 255
* D. - 256

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "A" is correct as RIP has a maximum hop count of 15.
When RIP route metric reaches 16 hops is classified as unreachable as
the RIP metric of 16 represents "infinite".

13.) A Host PC is connected to interface Fa0/14 of a Cisco Switch. The
switch is running the IEEE Standard Spanning-Tree. What is the order of
operations the interface will follow before forwarding traffic?

* A. - Listening, Learning, Forwarding, Blocking.
* B. - Blocking, Listening, Learning, Forwarding.
* C. - Listening, Learning, Blocking, Forwarding.
* D. - Blocking, Forwarding, Listening, Learning.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: A Cisco switch running IEEE Standard Spanning-Tree when
connected to a HOST PC will transition through the following states;
"Blocking, Listening, Learning, Forwarding." The correct answer is B.

14.) Which of the following is true regarding passwords on a Cisco
Router and/or Switch?

* A. - Type 7 passwords are uncrackable.
* B. - All passwords must be encrypted.
* C. - Type 5 Passwords are uncrackable.
* D. - You can decrypt passwords using the "no service encryption"
command.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "C" is correct as type 5 Passwords are stored as MD5
Hashes. Type 7 passwords are weak and can easily be decrypted. Passwords
are not required to be encrypted on a Cisco device and you cannot
decrypt passwords using a Cisco device.

15.) What command will show you what IOS your neighboring Cisco device
is running?

* A. - show cdp neighbor
* B. - show version
* C. - show cdp neighbor detail
* D. - show neighbor ios

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "C" is correct as only the show cdp neighbor detail
will display the neighboring Cisco device ios information via cdp.

16.) You've been tasked with creating a new subnet on an switch which
represents the entire forth floor of your building. This subnet must
have the capacity to support 380 host IP addresses. What subnet mask do
you use?

* A. - 255.255.255.0
* B. - 255.255.255.128
* C. - 255.255.242.0
* D. - 255.255.254.0

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "D" is correct as a /23 (255.255.254.0) supports 510
host addresses.

17.) You've recently upgraded a branch office from a Cisco 2610 to a
Cisco 2811 and you've been requested by management to erase all
configurations off the device that are company confidential including
certificates. What command would you execute on the old Cisco 2610
series router?

* A. - erase nvram:
* B. - format flash:
* C. - erase flash:
* D. - format nvram:

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "A" is correct as the command *erase nvram:* will
erase the contents of NVRAM thus removing all configuration. The
depreciated command for *erase nvram:* is *write erase*

18.) Which of the following command when issued on a switch port will
shutdown the port if other managed switches are connected to that port?

* A. - switchport guard bpdu
* B. - spanning-tree portfast
* C. - spanning-tree bpduguard on
* D. - spanning-tree bpduguard enable

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "D" is correct as bpduguard will prevent
unauthorized managed switches from connecting to specific ports when
enabled using the *spanning-tree bpduguard enable* command.

19.) What type of security implementation would prevent unauthorized
users from unplugging an office PC and plugging in their laptop into the
network?

* A. - Access Control List
* B. - Port Security
* C. - VLAN Authentication
* D. - BPDU Guard

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "B" is correct as Port Security can be configured to
allow specific MAC addresses authorization to access the network on
specified ports on a Cisco Switch.

20.) Which command do execute on a Layer 2 switch when you're required
to configure 192.168.22.1 as a default gateway?

* A. - ip default-gateway 192.168.22.1
* B. - default gateway 192.168.22.1
* C. - ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.22.1
* D. - ip default-network 192.168.22.1

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "A" is correct as the command *ip default-gateway
x.x.x.x* is the correct syntax to configure a default gateway on a
non-routed device.

21.) What is the eighth usable host IP address in the subnet
10.29.144.64/27?

* A. - 10.29.144.40
* B. - 10.29.144.72
* C. - 10.29.144.8
* D. - 10.29.144.128

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "B" is correct as the Subnet ID is 10.29.144.64/27,
the first usable host IP Address is 10.29.144.65. The last usable host
IP address is 10.29.144.95 and the eighth usable host IP address is
10.29.144.72

22.) What command do you execute to view frame relay permanent virtual
circuit information on a Cisco Router.

* A. - show frame-relay circuit
* B. - show frame-relay vc
* C. - show frame-relay pvc
* D. - show frame-relay map

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "C" is correct as answers A and B are invalid
commands and answer D displays the current frame-relay layer2 to layer3
map. Not the PVC information.

23.) What is the maximum limit of hops permitted in an OSPF route before
it is marked unreachable?

* A. - 15
* B. - 16
* C. - 255
* D. - Unlimited

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "D" is correct as OSPF is a link state routing
protocol and does not use a hop count as its metric but rather a
shortest path cost.

24.) What command disables CDP on a specific interface?

* A. - no cdp run
* B. - no cdp enable
* C. - no cdp
* D. - cdp off

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "B" is correct as the command *no cdp enable* will
disable CDP on only the configured interface.

25.) - What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

* A. - Propagation of VLAN Information
* B. - Bridge and Switch Loop Prevention
* C. - Switch Redundancy
* D. - SPAN Port Analysis

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "B" is correct as Spanning Tree's general purpose is
to prevent Layer 2 briding loops thus preventing broadcast storms.

26.) True or False; VLAN's break up broadcast domains?

* A. - True
* B. - False

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "A" is correct as VLAN's break up large broadcast
domains into smaller but more manageable broadcast domains.

27.) Examine the following Router access control list;

R3(config)#access-list 180 deny tcp any host 10.82.91.220 eq 21
R3#

What operation does this Access Control List perform?

* A. - The ACL denies any SMTP traffic destined to the host
10.82.91.220.
* B. - The ACL denies any POP3 traffic destined to the host
10.82.91.220.
* C. - The ACL denies any FTP traffic destined to the host 10.82.91.220.
* D. - The ACL denies any TFTP traffic destined to the host
10.82.91.220.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "C" is correct as the ACL statement states that any
source traffic destined towards host 10.82.91.220 equal to port 21 (FTP)
is to be denied.

28.) True or False; An IPv6 Address is 32bits long?

* A. - True
* B. - False

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The answer is false as an IPv6 address is 128bits long. An
IPv4 address is 32bits long.

29.) You are tasked by your manager to configure a trunk link between a
Cisco Catalyst Switch and a Juniper Switch. What trunking encapsulation
should you use on the inter-switch links.?

* A. - ISL (Inter-Switch Link)
* B. - Dot1q (802.1q VLAN Tagging)
* C. - VTP (Virtual Trunking Protocol)
* D. - A trunk link cannot be created between mix-matched switch
vendors.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" as 802.1q is an IEEE Standard
which is commonly supported on most vendor platforms. ISL (Inter-Switch
Link) is a Cisco Proprietary trunking protocol and VTP is a protocol
used for propagation of VLAN information.

30.) If a Cisco Catalyst Series switch receives a Frame on port which
has a destination unknown to the switch, what does the switch do with
the frame?

* A. - Forwards the frame out all ports except the source port in
the same VLAN which the source port configured to access.
* B. - Forwards the frame out all ports on the switch except the
source port.
* C. - The switch will drop the frame and send an ICMP unreachable
message back to the source.
* D. - Laugh at the frame and call it jumbo the frame.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "A" as the switch will forward the
frame out all ports in the same VLAN as it was sourced from excluding
the source port.

31.) You made several configuration changes to your Cisco Router a week
ago which involved switching ISP's. One day the company experienced a
power failure and when the power was restored end users were complaining
that they were unable to access the internet. What is most likely the
problem?

* A. - The Routers configuration was reset to default.
* B. - The Routers config is corrupt.
* C. - The configuration register is ignoring the contents of
Non-Volatile RAM (NVRAM).
* D. - You forgot to save the config changes you made a week ago.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The most accurate answer to this scenario would be "D". If
you forget to execute the *copy run start* command after making changes
than a reboot of the router will revert the routers configuration back
to when the config was last saved.

32.) What is the Administrative Distance (AD) of an External EIGRP Route?

* A. - 90
* B. - 110
* C. - 120
* D. - 170

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Answer "D" is correct as the Administrative Distance of an
EIGRP EX Route is 170. The Administrative distance of an Internal EIGRP
Route is 90.

33.) Under what circumstances would you need to configure a clock rate
on a serial interface?

* A. - When the interface is terminated with the DTE end of the cable.
* B. - When the interface is terminated using the DCE end of the cable.
* C. - When the interface is terminated using a Category 3 Cable.
* D. - When the interface is terminated using a loopback adapter.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" as you can only assign a clock
rate to a serial interface if its terminated by a DCE end of a serial cable.

34.) What is the default synchronous serial interface encapsulation on a
Cisco router?

* A. - PPP
* B. - Frame-Relay
* C. - HDLC
* D. - X.25

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "C" as the default synchronous serial
interface encapsulation on a cisco router is the Cisco proprietary HDLC.

35.) When viewing the NAT translation table on a Cisco router via the
*show ip nat translations* command. What does the "outside local" value
represent?

* A. - An IP address that represents one or more inside local IP
addresses to the outside world.
* B. - The IP address assigned to a host on the outside network by
its owner.
* C. - IP address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network
* D. - The IP address assigned to a host on the inside network

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "C" as the "outside local" address is
the ip address of an outside host as it appears to the inside network.

36.) Which of the following are NOT a benefit of Network Address
Translation?

* A. - Reduces the need for additional globally routable address
space for internal host.
* B. - Easy renumbering when switching Internet Service Providers.
* C. - Multiple internal host addresses can be translated to a
single outside global address.
* D. - NAT offers an additional security layer between outside and
inside host.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Out of all the answers listed, Answer "D" is correct as
Network Address Translation (NAT) does not provide any security, it is
designed by nature to translate one ip address to another either one to
one or dynamic port translation (overloading).

37.) Which of the following are a benefit of VLAN Pruning?

* A. - Reduces traffic on the default VLAN 1.
* B. - Reduces unnecessary VLAN's.
* C. - Reduces unnecessary broadcast and multicast traffic.
* D. - Enforces VLAN security between switches.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "C" as VTP Pruning is prevents
switches from forwarding unnecessary VLAN broadcast and multicast
traffic to a directly connected switch over a trunk link if the
neighboring switch does not have any ports in the same VLAN.

38.) You work at a Network Operations Center (NOC) providing support for
end users. You receive a call from an end user who pluged a switch into
the jack in his office and now he claims the port is no longer
operational. What is most likely the problem?

* A. - BPDU Guard shutdown the port because it detected BPDU's.
* B. - Port Security shutdown the port because it detected BPDU's on
the link.
* C. - Port Fast caused the port to go into ERR-Disable as multiple
MAC addresses were detected on the switch port.
* D. - The switch he plugged into the wall jack malfunctioned and
damaged the port on the company switch.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "A" as the most likely answer to this
scenario is that BPDU Guard shutdown the port.

39.) Inter-Switch Link (ISL) and IEEE Dot1q are types of...?

* A. - Routing Protocols
* B. - Trunking Encapsulations
* C. - Trunk Security
* D. - Uplinks

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" as ISL and DOT1Q are different
types of trunk encapsulation protocols.

40.) Based on the routing table shown below, when the router receives a
packet destined to 10.10.20.18 where will the router forward the traffic
to?

Gateway of last resort is 10.22.18.1 to network 0.0.0.0

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 4 masks
C 10.22.18.1/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 10.22.18.21
S 10.10.0.0/16 [1/0] via 10.22.18.31
S 10.10.10.0/24 [1/0] via 10.22.18.41
S 10.10.10.10/32 [1/0] via 10.22.18.51
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 10.22.18.1

Router#

* A. - 10.22.18.21
* B. - 10.22.18.31
* C. - 10.22.18.41
* D. - 10.22.18.51

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" as the router would forward
traffic any traffic it receives destined to 10.10.20.18 towards
10.22.18.31 as it is the next hop of the route with the longest match in
the routing table.

41.) What command on a Cisco device allows you to view hop by hop
information regarding the flow of traffic?

* A. - Ping
* B. - ip route
* C. - tracert
* D. - traceroute

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "D". In order to view the flow of
traffic on a hop by hop basis you use the *traceroute* command.

42.) At what layer OSI layer does the TCP and UDP protocols reside at?

* A. - Physical
* B. - Datalink
* C. - Network
* D. - Transport

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "D" as the TCP and UDP headers are
appended to a packet at the transport layer (Layer 4).

43.) Using the default auto-cost reference-bandwidth for OSPF, what
would be the cost of a 1Gbps link?

* A. - 1
* B. - 10
* C. - 100
* D. - 1000

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "D" as the auto-cost reference
bandwidth by default is set to 100Mbps therefore any link equal to or
greater than 100Mbps would get an OSPF cost of 1.=.

44.) What command shown below is used to configure an MOTD Banner on a
Cisco Router and/or Switch?

* A. - Router(config-if)#motd banner #
* B. - Router(config-if)#banner motd #
* C. - Router(config)#banner motd #
* D. - Router(config)#motd banner #

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "C" as the banner command is executed
in global configuration mode using the banner motd # where # is the
delimiting character.

45.) Address Resolution Protocol; also known as ARP is used for what
function?

* A. - Translates Domain Names to Layer 2 addresses.
* B. - Translates Domain Names to Layer 3 addresses.
* C. - Translates Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses.
* D. - Translates Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 addresses.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "D" as ARP translates an IP address
of a specific destination to a Layer 2 address when Only the IP address
is known.

46.) Review the Following switch configuration shown below;

!##################################################
!# Free CCNA Workbook Practice Exam Question 46 #
!##################################################
!
61STAFFORD-AS1#show run
Building configuration...

Current configuration : 5815 bytes
!
! Last configuration change at 12:00:00 EST Tue Jan 1 2011 by johndoe
!
version 12.1
no service pad
service timestamps debug uptime
service timestamps log uptime
no service password-encryption
!
hostname 61STAFFORD-AS1
!
!
username johndoe privilege 15 secret 5 $1$tbYL$ApZZRUApgoKUEhhu0cnLl1
clock timezone EST -5
ip subnet-zero
ip dhcp excluded-address 10.161.101.1 10.161.101.20
ip dhcp excluded-address 10.161.101.240 10.161.101.254
ip dhcp excluded-address 10.161.102.1 10.161.102.20
ip dhcp excluded-address 10.161.102.240 10.161.102.254
ip dhcp excluded-address 10.161.103.1 10.161.103.20
ip dhcp excluded-address 10.161.103.240 10.161.103.254
ip dhcp excluded-address 10.161.110.1 10.161.110.5
!
ip dhcp pool VLAN101
network 10.161.101.0 255.255.255.0
domain-name ultimatewidgit.com
default-router 10.161.101.254
dns-server 10.12.8.16 10.12.9.16
!
ip dhcp pool VLAN102
network 10.161.102.0 255.255.255.0
domain-name ultimatewidgit.com
default-router 10.161.102.254
dns-server 10.12.8.16 10.12.9.16
!
ip dhcp pool VLAN103
network 10.161.103.0 255.255.255.0
domain-name ultimatewidgit.com
default-router 10.161.103.254
dns-server 10.12.8.16 10.12.9.16
!
ip dhcp pool VLAN110
network 10.161.110.0 255.255.255.224
default-router 10.161.110.30
dns-server 10.12.8.16 10.12.9.16
!
ip domain-name ultimatewidgit.com
ip ssh time-out 120
ip ssh authentication-retries 3
!
!
spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
no spanning-tree optimize bpdu transmission
spanning-tree extend system-id
spanning-tree pathcost method long
!
vlan 1
tb-vlan1 1002
tb-vlan2 1003
!
vlan 72
name PUBLIC_INTERNET-LAYER-2-VLAN
!
vlan 101
name INTERNAL_NETWORK-10.161.101.0/24
!
vlan 102
name INTERNAL_NETWORK-10.161.102.0/24
!
vlan 103
name INTERNAL_WIFI_NETWORK-10.161.104.0/24
!
vlan 107
name DMZ-71.84.16.0/29
!
vlan 110
name GUEST_WIFI-10.161.105.0/26
!
vlan 1002
tb-vlan1 1
tb-vlan2 1003
!
vlan 1003
tb-vlan1 1
tb-vlan2 1002
parent 1005
!
vlan 1004
bridge 1
stp type ibm
!
vlan 1005
bridge 1
!
interface Port-channel1
description ## L2 TRUNK LINK TO 61STAFFORD-AS2 ##
switchport mode trunk
switchport nonegotiate
channel-group 1 mode on
!
interface FastEthernet0/1
description ## L2 LINK TO CABLE MODEM ##
switchport access vlan 72
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/2
description ## LINK TO 61STAFFORD-FW1 ETHERNET0 ##
switchport access vlan 72
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/3
description ## LINK TO 61STAFFORD-FW1 ETHERNET1 ##
switchport mode trunk
switchport nonegotiate
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/4
description ## LINK TO 61STAFFORD-AP1 FASTETHERNET0 ##
switchport trunk native vlan 103
switchport mode trunk
switchport nonegotiate
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/5
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/6
description ## FRONT OFFICE PC ##
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/7
description ## MAIL ROOM PC ##
switchport access vlan 102
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/8
description ## LOADING DOCK PC ##
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/9
description ## LOADING DOCK PRINTER ##
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/10
description ## MANAGERS OFFICE PC ##
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/11
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/12
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/13
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/14
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/15
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/16
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/17
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/18
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/19
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/20
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/21
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/22
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/23
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface FastEthernet0/24
switchport access vlan 101
switchport mode access
spanning-tree portfast
spanning-tree bpdufilter enable
spanning-tree bpduguard enable
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/1
description ## L2 TRUNK LINK TO 61STAFFORD-AS2 ##
switchport mode trunk
switchport nonegotiate
channel-group 1 mode on
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/2
description ## L2 TRUNK LINK TO 61STAFFORD-AS2 ##
switchport mode trunk
switchport nonegotiate
channel-group 1 mode on
!
interface Vlan1
description ## DISABLED ##
no ip address
no ip route-cache
shutdown
!
interface Vlan101
description ## MANAGEMENT INTERFACE ##
ip address 10.161.101.1 255.255.255.0
no ip route-cache
!
ip default-gateway 10.161.101.254
no ip http server
!
ip access-list extended VTY_ACCESS_LIST
permit ip 10.51.18.0 0.0.0.255 any
permit ip 10.52.19.0 0.0.0.255 any
deny ip any any log
!
line con 0
login local
line vty 0 15
access-class VTY_ACCESS_LIST in
login local
transport input ssh
!
ntp clock-period 17180244
ntp server 129.6.15.29
ntp server 129.6.15.28
!
end

The office recently deployed an application that communicates tracking
information between the mail room and the loading dock PC's. The office
manager says that the application is not operating and keeps popping up
with an error saying message; "ERR34: No Heartbeat" Upon investigation
of this application error you determine that the application uses
broadcast to communicate. By examining the switch configuration, what
appears to be the problem?

* A. - Instruct the manager contact the software vendor to reinstall
the software.
* B. - Disable spanning-tree bpdu guard on both the mail room and
loading dock PC's.
* C. - Configure the mail room PC to static access VLAN 101.
* D. - Disable spanning-tree bpdu filter on both the mail room and
loading dock PC's.

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Upon examination of the switch configuration the mail room
PC is in vlan 102 whereas the loading dock PC is in vlan 101. In order
for these two pc's to communicate via broadcast they need to be placed
into the same VLAN. The correct answer is "C".

47.) Which of the following function as a keep-alive for a Frame Relay
circuit?

* A. - LMI
* B. - BECN
* C. - FECN
* D. - ANSI

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "A" as the Local Management Interface
(LMI) which functions on DLCI 0 when using the ANSI LMI Type or DLCI
1023 when using the CISCO LMI type; provides a keep alive function and a
management communication circuit so that the frame-relay link parameters
can be advertised.

48.) At which layer of the OSI Model is reliability and error recovery
performed at?

* A. - Physical
* B. - Data-Link
* C. - Network
* D. - Transport

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "D" as error recover and reliability
is performed at the transport layer of the OSI Model.

49.) What protocol does trace route use?

* A. - TCP
* B. - ICMP
* C. - UDP
* D. - SNAP

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" as the Internet Control Message
Protocol (ICMP) provides the trace route functionality by incrementing
the TTL progressively to force routers in the transit path on a hop by
hop basis to return an ICMP "TTL expired in transit" responses sourced
from the ingress interface for each layer 3 hop between the source and
destination.

50.) Which decimal value listed below translates to the binary value of;
11000111?

* A. - 214
* B. - 201
* C. - 171
* D. - 199

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "D" as the binary value translates to
128+64+4+2+1 which equals 199.(

51.) Which of the following protocols is *NOT* classified as an interior
routing protocol?

* A. - OSPF
* B. - BGP
* C. - EIGRP
* D. - RIP

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" As EIGRP, OSPF and RIP are
classified as IGP's and BGP is classified as an EGP (Exterior Routing
Protocol).

52.) What following Gigabit Ethernet standards uses a single strand of
SMF (Single Mode Fiber) fiber to transmit and receive simultaneously?

* A. - 1000Base-TX
* B. - 1000Base-LX
* C. - 1000Base-SX
* D. - 1000Base-BX

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "D" As 1000Base-BX uses a single SMF
fiber for Gigabit Ethernet communication by sending and receiving at
different light wavelengths; (1310nm/1490nm).

53.) Which of the following is the well-known TCP port for DNS?

* A. - 21
* B. - 53
* C. - 58
* D. - 121

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" dns communicates using TCP Port
number 53.

54.) Which of the following OSPF area types blocks Type 3, 4, 5 and 7 LSA's

* A. - Stub Area
* B. - Totally Stubby Area
* C. - Not-so-Stubby-Area
* D. - Not-so-totally-stubby-area

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" as only the totally stubby area
blocks Type 3, 4, 5 and 7 LSA's. A Stub area blocks Type 5 LSA's. An
NSSA blocks type 5 LSA's but convert Type 7 to 5 at the ABR. NSSA TSA
blocks type 3, 4, 5 LSA's but allow type 7 inside the area which is
converted to type 5 at the ABR before advertised into area 0.

55.) True or False; When you configure a static route with the
Administrative Distance of 255, that route does not installed into the
routing table.

* A. - False
* B. - True

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" as any route with the
administrative distance of 255 is considered invalid and not placed into
the routing table.

56.) What is TCP Port 22 used for?

* A. - Telnet
* B. - SSH
* C. - DNS
* D. - FTP

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "B" as Secure Shell (SSH) uses the
well known TCP port of 22.

57.) Which command listed below is *NOT* a required command to enable
SSH on a Cisco Router and/or Switch?

* A. - crypto key generate rsa
* B. - ip domain-name
* C. - login local
* D. - enable secret /password/

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "D" as an enable secret is NOT
required to enable SSH.

58.) Review the following Cisco Router configuration shown below;

!##################################################
!# Free CCNA Workbook Practice Exam Question 58 #
!##################################################
!
interface FastEthernet0/0
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
ip access-group INSIDE_IN
!
ip access-list extended INSIDE_IN
permit ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 any
!
end

How many host IP addresses would be permitted to pass information
through FastEthernet0/0?

* A. - 128
* B. - 254
* C. - 255
* D. - 256

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: Upon examination of the access-list you'll notice that the
ACL is permitting 192.168.1.0/24 inbound to any destination. Since a /24
network has 256 IP addresses but only 254 IP addresses can be assigned
to the host (256-2 for network and broadcast IP's) which would make the
correct answer "B".

59.) Review the following Cisco Router configuration shown below;

!##################################################
!# Free CCNA Workbook Practice Exam Question 59 #
!##################################################
!
Cisco IOS Software, C2600 Software (C2600-ADVENTERPRISEK9-M), Version 12.4(15)T14, RELEASE SOFTWARE (fc2)
Technical Support: http://www.cisco.com/techsupport
Copyright (c) 1986-2010 by Cisco Systems, Inc.
Compiled Tue 17-Aug-10 05:40 by prod_rel_team

ROM: System Bootstrap, Version 12.2(8r) [cmong 8r], RELEASE SOFTWARE (fc1)

R1 uptime is 10 minutes
System returned to ROM by power-on
System image file is "flash:c2600-adventerprisek9-mz.124-15.T14.bin"

This product contains cryptographic features and is subject to United
States and local country laws governing import, export, transfer and
use. Delivery of Cisco cryptographic products does not imply
third-party authority to import, export, distribute or use encryption.
Importers, exporters, distributors and users are responsible for
compliance with U.S. and local country laws. By using this product you
agree to comply with applicable laws and regulations. If you are unable
to comply with U.S. and local laws, return this product immediately.

A summary of U.S. laws governing Cisco cryptographic products may be found at:
http://www.cisco.com/wwl/export/crypto/tool/stqrg.html

If you require further assistance please contact us by sending email to
export@cisco.com.

Cisco 2651XM (MPC860P) processor (revision 1.0) with 253952K/8192K bytes of memory.
Processor board ID JAE071305PZ
M860 processor: part number 5, mask 2
2 FastEthernet interfaces
2 Serial interfaces
32K bytes of NVRAM.
49152K bytes of processor board System flash (Read/Write)

Configuration register is 0x2102
!

Executing what command would display the information given above?

* A. - show running-config
* B. - show platform
* C. - show version
* D. - show tech-support

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The information listed in this question would be displayed
when you execute the
show version command. The correct answer is "C".

60.) What is the default CDP timer interval?

* A. - 60 Seconds
* B. - 120 Seconds
* C. - 180 Seconds
* D. - 240 Seconds

Question was not answered

EXPLANATION: The correct answer is "A" as the default CDP timer on a
Cisco device is 60 seconds.